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Jesus Was Nailed to the Cross

CHURCH POSITION

 “Unless I see the mark of the nails in his hands, and put my finger in the mark of the nails and my hand in his side, I will not believe." (Gospel of John, 20:25)

"And then they drew the nails from the hands of the Lord and laid him on the earth. And the whole earth shook and there came a great fear. Then the sun shone again..." (Gospel of Peter, 6:20)

SCHOLARS

 “it was normal Roman practice to bind the convict to the cross by ropes, not to nail him to it.” (Cohn, 1963, p. 219)

"These obiter dicta by Justin, Tertullian, and Origen set the mold for Western artists to portray Jesus nailed to the cross instead of bound to it." (Dimont, 1991, p. 122)

"...of the three oldest representations of the crucifixion...one, a brown jasper...shows Jesus hung by his wrists from the cross...These triats correspond to Roman practice..." (Morton Smith, 1978, p. 61)

THE REALITY

Tradition says that Jesus was crucified by driving nails into his hands and feet. Jesus’ legs weren’t broken, as were the legs of his unfortunate companions, probably because of the long-standing belief that resurrection was only possible for someone whose bones had not been broken. Jesus was not left on the cross, but taken down after a few hours.

 

To consider the evidence, we have to examine a number of issues: (1) Did the normal mode of crucifixion involve nailing hands and feet? (2) Is it possible to secure someone to a cross by driving nails through their hands? (3) If not through their hands, through their wrists or forearms? (4) And how likely is it that Jesus was treated in this way?

 

Overview of Crucifixion

 

According to Cicero (106-43 B.C.), crucifixion was “the worst and cruelest” form of torture (Contra Verres, II, 5-14).  It was intended to inflict pain as well as serve as a deterrent to others, and hence was usually carried out in a public place. The victim was attached to two pieces of wood (usually shaped in a T, called a tau or Saint Anthony’s cross), by nails or ropes [[1]], and left to hang. Death was by suffocation, which could be delayed by pressing one’s feet against a titled ledge (sedula in Latin, pegma in Greek) midway down the post, if available.  If the victim survived too long, their legs were broken, preventing them from pressing their feet for support, and rushing on the eventual suffocation. However, this was rarely done since the idea was to extend the punishment as long as possible, not only for the sake of the pain, for also the public deterrent. Typically, victims were left on the cross as food for wild beasts and birds of prey (Hengel, 1977), so the cross was just high enough off the ground to let animals feed; and typically “the agony of the crucified never ended in less than two days (Craveri, 1967, p. 418).”

 

 

Did the normal mode of crucifixion involve nailing through the hands and feet?

 

To determine the “normal mode” we can look at three sources of information: anthropological, graphic, and textual. Anthropological is obviously the most powerful form, for no matter what pictures we have and no matter what the texts tell us, nothing is as persuasive as a good corpse.

 

Anthropological: We have only one corpse from this era who shows the effects of crucifixion. He was 1 of 35 individuals discovered in 1968 at Giv’at ha Mivtar, in northeastern Jerusalem. The adult male had been 5’5” tall. His arms had been hung to the cross, not nailed, and his feet had been crossed and nailed to a small olive wood plaque set behind his heel. His legs had not been broken. So, the anthropological evidence suggests tying the hands but nailing the feet.

 

Graphic: The earliest artifacts show people being hung from the cross, not nailed. Sometimes their feet were nailed, sometimes not. A brown jasper gem, dated from 200 A.D., shows the victim hung by his wrists. Neither his hands nor his feet were nailed. An equally ancient artifact, scribbled on the walls of the Imperial Palace in Palatine Hill in Rome between 193 and 235 A.D., shows a crucified figure also hung, not nailed (Morton, 1977). A ring seal amulet dating from the Third Century depicting Dionysus crucified also omits any signs of being nailed (Freke & Gandy, 1999). So graphic evidence from the earliest artifacts supports the anthropological evidence.

 

Textual: There is very little textual evidence for the method of affixing people to crosses. Most accounts  simply state that people were crucified without mentioning exactly how, although Josephus in the Jewish Wars (V) specifically says that they were nailed. However, he was writing about events in 70 C.E., and the situation involved the mass execution of thousands of Jews. Moreover, the avowed goal of crucifixion was to provide an extended death, not only as a punishment but also for the purposes of demonstrating to the public. From that perspective, a long slow death was preferred, and this suggests tying, not nailing, since nailing a person to the cross could bring on sudden death from severing an artery.

Look at this description from the martyrdom of Andrew as described in this 2nd Century text:

"...Then he sent him [Andrew] off to be crucified and commanded the executioners not to impale him with nails but to stretch him out tied up with ropes [and] to leave his knees uncut, supposing that by doing so he would punish Andrew more severely... (Acts of Andrew, 51.1)."

 

In summary, while textual evidence suggests that nails were used (at least with regard to mass executions), based on the only corpse ever found and all the earliest graphic evidence, it appears that, in general, individuals were crucified by being tied, not nailed to the cross. Surely some people were nailed, and especially in the case of mass crucifixions or when a rapid death was desirable, but it’s impossible to know what proportion were nailed vs. what proportion were tied. It seems most likely that individuals were tied, not only because this is supported by the anthropological and graphic evidence, but also because it holds true to one of the main goals of crucifixion – a long and painful death.

 

Is it Possible to Secure Someone to a Cross by Driving Nails Through their Hands?

 

While it was not uncommon for someone to be nailed to the cross, nailing through the hands was rarely done because the composition of the hands was not sufficient to support a person’s body weight. Thus, nailing through the hands would result in a person’s hands splitting and the person would fall to the ground.

 

If not through their hands, through their wrists or forearms?

 

If nailed, a person was nailed between the bones of the forearm or the wrist. The executioner had to be careful not to sever an artery, but when done successfully, a person could be suspended in this manner, assuming there was support from a sedula. Despite this being the only way to nail someone to a cross, most graphic depictions of Jesus’ death still show the nails being driven through his hands.

 

How Likely is it that Jesus Would be Nailed to the Cross?

 

It seems that the normal way to fix Jesus to the cross would have been to tie him, not nail him. Yet the traditional view is that he was nailed. Where did this come from? Neither the Gospels of Mark nor Matthew nor Luke mention anything about Jesus being nailed to the cross. John’s description of the crucifixion also omits any reference to being nailed to the cross, but  the Gospel of John does say that Jesus “…showed them his hands and his side (20:20).” It is only when Thomas says: “Unless I see the mark of the nails in his hands, and put my finger in the mark of the nails and my hand in his side, I will not believe (20:25).”  Later (20:27) Jesus replies - "Reach here with your finger, and see My hands; and reach here your hand and put it into My side; and do not be unbelieving, but believing." Thus, only from John 20:20-27 comes the tradition.

 

What can we infer from this? Why is the issue of Jesus being nailed to the cross absent from the first three gospels, and only present in the Gospel of John? And why does the Gospel of John claim that Jesus is nailed through the hands, when we know this is not physically possible, and if he were nailed at all, it would be through the wrists?

 

One possibility for the fact that only the Gospel of John mentions that Jesus was nailed is that by the time the Gospel of John was written (more than 100 years after Jesus’ death), critics of the Jesus story [[2]] had pointed out that if Jesus had only been on the cross for a few hours, then it was unlikely that he would have died. For example, the two Zealots crucified alongside him were still alive and their legs had to be broken to hasten their death, and it was well known that death by crucifixion could take days (see Josephus). By the time the Gospel of John was written in the Second Century, there were rumors that Jesus had not died on the cross, and so the addition of the nails and the spear may be an apologist strategy to explain why he died so suddenly. We see a similar apologist strategy in the Gospel of Matthew (28:12-15) which sought to answer the criticisms of the empty tomb theory by positing a “plausible” alternate theory [[3]]. In fact, some scholars maintain that “doubting Thomas” is specifically inserted into the Gospel of John to deal with the broader issues of doubt about the Gospel’s authenticity throughout the Roman world. Thomas, for example, is not a doubter in any of the earlier gospels, and certainly not a doubter in his own gospel. Yet in the Gospel of John, Thomas’s skepticism is mentioned more than once (e.g., 14:5; 20:27).

 

A second possibility for the story’s inclusion is the OT prophesy about a pierced Messiah [[4]]. Large parts of the Gospels were written not because they reported historical fact, but because they referred back to OT prophecies (Ehrman, 2006). Indeed, Professor Gerd Ludemann’s (2001) extensive analysis of the New Testament has this to say about John 20:27 – “…the narrative is a creation of the evangelist, who in it makes concrete the motif of doubt also known from other resurrection stories. The historical value is nil…(p. 582).”

 

Finally, it must be noted that John 20:27 invites Thomas to put his finger in Jesus’ hands and side. Can Jesus be touched? The Gospel of John contradicts itself in 20:17 when it has Jesus say to Mary, earlier that day  – “…Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father.” How then can he now be asking Thomas to touch him?

 

Thus, there are good reasons why the story may not be historically accurate and probably an invention of the writers of the Gospel of John or taken from the oral stories told by others that the writers of John put down.

 

An additional reason to believe the story may not be historically accurate is the simple fact that nailing through the hands was not physically possible. To counter this claim, some historians have argued that the Greek word used for hand(s) (xeipa, xeipac) could also apply to a person’s wrists (xepiou), so that when the Gospel of John claims that Jesus showed Thomas his “hands” (20:27) it really meant “wrists”. These apologists point to one verse in Acts (12:7) in which chains fall from Peter’s wrists, and indeed, in some translations of Acts, xepiou is translated as hands (e.g., King James, American Standard). However, in other versions it is translated as wrists (e.g., New Revised Standard, New International), so the analogy doesn’t necessarily apply. In any event, Acts and the Gospel of John were written at different times by different people who used different forms of Greek, so it’s not valid to compare the wording in one book as a proof of the meaning in another book.

 

More importantly, in Greek there are separate words for wrists and hands (just as there are in English), so one has to assume that when the Gospel of John refers to hands they are talking about hands and not wrists. For example, when the Gospel of John refers to fingers (20:25, 20:27) or being slapped with hands (19:3) different words were used, so had the Gospel writers intended to use the word for wrists, surely they would have used it.

 

Against the single testimony of the Gospel of John, which requires us to translate the word “hands” as “wrists”, we have numerous descriptions of the death of Jesus which specifically refer to him being hung, not nailed. Here are some examples…

 

 

·         “The God of our ancestors raised up Jesus whom you had killed by hanging…” (Acts 5:30. See also Acts 10:39 and 13:29). 

·         On the eve of Passover they hanged Yeshu.”  (Sanhedrin 43a) 

·         "Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us - for it is written, 'Cursed is everyone who hangs on a tree' (Galatians 3:13).”

·         “He himself carried up our sins in his body to the tree…” (1 Peter 2:24)

·         “One hanged was I, and yet not hanged (Acts of John, 101).”

 

In summary – while textual evidence suggests that being nailed to the cross was common for mass executions, the only surviving corpse of a crucified person was tied, not nailed to the cross. Moreover, all early graphic representations of crucifixion show individuals being tied, not nailed. What evidence is there, then, that Jesus was nailed? Only the report in the Gospel of John. No other gospel makes this claim. Moreover, the claim is presented in a contradictory position, asking a disciple to touch his hands while earlier telling a disciple that he could not be touched until he had ascended. And the claim in the Gospel of John is that Jesus was nailed through his hands, a possibility that almost all scholars dismiss. Moreover, there were good reasons for the writers of the Gospel of John to invent this story, and many leading scholars believe it has no historical basis.

 

When you look at the evidence as a whole, it seems far more likely that Jesus was tied to the cross, not nailed.

 

10/03/2006



[1] Cohn (1963) – “it was normal Roman practice to bind the convict to the cross by ropes, not to nail him to it.” (p. 219)

[2] Including Jews, Jewish Christians, and competing early Christian sects such as the Docetists and the Gnostics.

[3] “And when they were assembled with the elders, and had taken counsel, they gave much money unto the soldiers, saying, Say ye, His disciples came by night, and stole him away while we slept. And if this come to the governor's ears, we will persuade him, and rid you of care. So they took the money, and did as they were taught: and this saying was spread abroad among the Jews, and continueth until this day.”

[4] Zechariah 12:10 – “…then they will look on Me whom they pierced…”

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MOST COMMON ERRORS
     
READER'S FORUM    
Date:     2006-05-29 Username:   drj Helpful:   3 of 3
This is one of the earliest depictions of a crucifixion from the 2nd Century. It is on a wall nerar the Palatine Hill in Rome. It shows a person being hung (not nailed) to a T shaped cross. No one has been able to figure out why the victim has the head of a horse.
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Date:     2006-06-09 Username:   ProfWilliams Helpful:   2 of 2
Why would the gospels specifically mention nails if nails had not been used?
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Date:     2006-06-09 Username:   drj Helpful:   3 of 3
By the time the gospels were written, it may have been common place to nail people to the cross. But in early 1st Century Israel, this wasn't the case, as shown by the only body found and by the art works which survived (discussed above). In addition, the many references to Jesus "being hung from a tree" also suggest that he was hung rather than nailed.
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Date:     2006-08-15 Username:   gkhaas Helpful:   1 of 1
Your remark: "Hence, he should have had no knowledge of the wound in the side." presumes that Thomas had not *heard* any of that information from the disciples to whom Jesus earlier appeared, or from the eye-witness women or other bystanders.
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Date:     2006-08-19 Username:   drj Helpful:   0 of 1
Hi Gkhaas. Your suggestion is possible. But it isn't mentioned by anyone else prior to that, so who would have told Thomas? Of course, it could have happened "off stage", so your suggestion is possible, yet no one else in any of the Gospels discusses the wound.
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Date:     2006-08-25 Username:   puglia Helpful:   2 of 4
Your information on the earliest crucifixion corpse is wrong. Please reference Time magazine Janurary 18 1971, A Death In Jerusalem. It can be found at http://www.time.com/time/magazine/article/0,9171,942473-3,00.html. Below is part of the article which proves the corpse your refering to was crusified by nails! Thank GOD for computers huh!! Time Magazines: A Death in Jerusalem ( only portions of this article were copied for space. Summoned by Israel's Department of Antiquities and Museums, Archaeologist Vasilius Tzaferis quickly pried open the lids of 15 ossuaries, or stone coffins, which held the skeletons of 35 people—eleven men, twelve women and twelve children. At least five of the Judeans had met violent deaths. But Tzaferis was especially intrigued by what he found in one ossuary, which contained the bones of a child about three or four years old and those of an adult whose name—Yehohanan—was inscribed in barely legible Aramaic letters on the outside. The man's heel bones were penetrated by the rusty remains of a 7-in.-long nail. From these fragile bones, a Rumanian-born anatomist and anthropologist at Jerusalem's Hebrew University, Nicu Haas, was able to put together a surprisingly detailed picture of the young man: in his mid-20s at the time of his death, he was of average height for the period (5 ft. 5 in.), had delicate, pleasing features that seemed to approach the Hellenistic ideal, probably wore a beard, and apparently had never performed any really arduous labor—indicating his possible upper-class origins. Except for the injuries inflicted during his crucifixion, he seemed to have been in exceptionally fine health. His only deformities were a slight cleft palate and a barely perceptible asymmetry of the skull, possibly a sign of a difficult birth. The actual date of the execution was not so apparent. But from pottery and other artifacts in the cave, the Israeli scholars were able to make a rough estimate: it could have taken place as early as A.D. 7, when the Judeans rose up against the Romans to protest an official census, or as late as the final decade before the destruction of the Second Temple and the dispersion of the Jews in A.D. 70. You have the right to try and disprove all you choose. I feel obligated though to warn you of misleading people with half truths. Please make sure all your information is correct before you post it. Go In Peace :)
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Date:     2006-08-26 Username:   jimfoxy Helpful:   3 of 3
Hi drj, You really need to do your homework better. I suggest you take this whole page down and substitute a reference to http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crucifixion On the other hand, you make a few mistakes that are common, even on the part of pretty good historians. So I have a hard time blaming you too much. First things first -- there is plenty of good evidence for nailing of crucifixion victims. Probably more manuscript evidence for nailing that for tying the limbs to the cross with ropes. Tying is supposed to explain the dearth of bodies that show the effects of crucifixion, and the historical reference to tens of thousands (or more) that must have suffered this fate. But the Roman practice of cremation is a more likely explaination. During the first revolt of the Jews against the Romans in AD 66-73, Josephus mentions that in the fall of Jerusalem (AD 70), "the soldiers out of rage and hatred amused themselves by nailing their prisoners in different postures." Josephus, Jewish War 5.11 & 451. You say that nailing through the hands was rarely done because the hands would split. This is based on a classic experiment done on an amputated hand. The hand was suspended by a nail through the palm, and with a weight of 85 pounds and some jerking, the nail tore through. Unfortunatley we don't know why the hand was amputated, how decomposed it was, where in the palm the nail was placed, how rough the nail was (did it act like a saw and saw its way through?). A nail driven though the lower part of the palm could easily support ten times that much weight, which makes the whole point moot. And even 85 pounds would be enough if the arms were also tied and most of the weight was supported by the feet. On top of all that, the Wikipedia explains that the Greek word "...(cheir) that is translated as 'hand' may have in fact included everything below the mid-forearm. Indeed, Acts 12:7 uses this word to report chains falling off from Peter's 'hands', although the chains would be around what we would call 'wrists'. " So your chain of logic falls apart and the gospel accounts are in no way shown to be unreliable. There is no reason whatsoever that Thomas' remarks could not be accurate. As mentioned above, Thomas would have been told in detail everything that had happened to their Lord, even if he (Thomas)was not present on Calvary, though I don't see John's statement in 19:25 to be an exhaustive list of everyone that had viewed Jesus on the cross at one time or the other throughout the day. Thanks for allowing me to comment.
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Date:     2006-08-31 Username:   drj Helpful:   1 of 1
Hi Puglia. If you'll read the section you'll see that you and I agree 100%. Paragraph 2 says: "His arms had been hung to the cross, not nailed, and his feet had been crossed and nailed to a small olive wood plaque set behind his heel..." which I believe is the same thing you said. So we both agree that the only corpse we have of a crucified person shows that nails were not used on his hands.
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Date:     2006-08-31 Username:   drj Helpful:   1 of 1
Hi Jim. Thanks for your comment. It's true that there is more textual evidence for nailing than for tying in general, but it's equally true that the weight of graphic evidence is clearly on the side of tying. So it's probably 50/50. In fact, scholars are evenly divided on this issue (See Joe Zias' article which is referenced in the wikipedia url you gave). On the other hand, the fact that the only corpse ever found was tied, not nailed, is compelling. The wikipedia article you cite notes that only "some historians" have claimed that the same Greek word can be used for "hand" and "forearm". That's because hand and forearm have different words in English and in Greek. In addition, the Christian tradition is that Jesus was nailed through the hands, not the wrists. The two pictures on the website you cite both show nails in the hands. Finally, there is an enormous amount of literature from Jewish and Christian sources which refers to Jesus being "hung" and not "nailed" (Acts 5:30, 10:39, 13:29; Galatians 3:13; Sefer Toledot Yeshu; Sanhedrin 43a; Acts of John 101). Now, does all of this mean that Jesus was definitely hung and not nailed? No. It is possible that despite all this evidence to the contrary, he was in fact nailed. There are very few absolutes when we try to reconstruct the life of anyone who lived 2000 years ago. On the other hand, the tradition that he was nailed is clearly more of a tradition than it is an historical fact. Again, thanks for the comments, and I plan to update this page soon as a result of your input and Puglia's comments too (you probably still won't agree with the page, but it will clarify some of the issues we've raised here and make it more unseful for future readers.
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Date:     2006-09-03 Username:   drj Helpful:   2 of 2
Please Note - As a result of the feedback above, this section was completed re-written. The comments prior to this date may no longer apply to the material as presented.
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Date:     2006-09-07 Username:   jimfoxy Helpful:   3 of 3
Hi Drj, Yes, we probably won't agree, but that is OK. My wife and I don't agree on everything and I love her anyway. Thanks for taking the trouble to redo the site. I think your current comments are more measured and more defensible. Wrong, probably :-), but definitely better. You probably should clarify that the artistic representations are too late to be very definitive, and DARN! is that a nail that I see in the donkey-man's hand? Jim
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Date:     2007-01-07 Username:   obiewahn Helpful:   1 of 2
Just a note about your comment :- Finally, it must be noted that John 20:27 invites Thomas to put his finger in Jesus’ hands and side. Can Jesus be touched? The Gospel of John contradicts itself in 20:17 when it has Jesus say to Mary, earlier that day – “…Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father.” How then can he now be asking Thomas to touch him? I have heard it said that Jesus told Mary not to touch him because he had not yet supposedly ascended to heaven and to God (as indicated by the last part of your quote) where as later with Thomas he had done so and so could be touched. The idea being this was supposed to mirror the grain offering ritual where the 'first fruits' of the harvest were waived up and down before God, and is in keeping with the Jewish 'Midrash' tradition. So to have touched him before he ascended would have made his offering of himself in some sense impure and unacceptable.
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Date:     2007-04-14 Username:   FatherSilence Helpful:   3 of 3
I would be cautious about using the "dionysis" reing seal as evidence. It's probably a fake. The Latin cross is a giveaway. As you have pointed out, the Romans used a Tau Cross. The inscription om the seal translates as "Orpheus Bacchus". It's hard to tell if the figure depicted is Orpheus or Bacchus since there is no corresponding myth in which either was crucified. Bacchus was torn apart by Titans and Orpheus was torn apart by Maenads. Supporters of the seal's authenticity usually date it to the 3rd or 4th Century CE, so even if the seal is not a fargery, it may be evidence that an Orphic Cult "appropriated" the story of Jesus' crucifixion, but I doubt it. The Maenads story is much more exciting. You point out Romans nailed their victims during mass executions. why should we assume Jesus was not part of a mass execution? The Bible says there were at least two other crosses on Golgotha that day. Another prisoner, Barabbas was apparently scheduled to die before his reprieve. Who's to say there weren't more? The Passover festival would have been a good time for Pilate to make a show of Roman authority. Since a crucified person is hung from his cross, it is inappropriate to refer to him as being "hanged" or to say his death was from a "hanging". Even if the Gospel of John was written 100 years or, for that matter, 200 years after Jesus' death, it was written by a citizen or subject of the Roman Empire and would have far more first hand information on crucifixion than I hope you or I will ever know. If he indicates some crucifixions were done through the hands, I believe him.
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Date:     2007-05-28 Username:   jimfoxy Helpful:   1 of 1
I would like to correct a point made by drj. He says, "Acts and the Gospel of John were written at different times by different people who used different forms of Greek, so it’s not valid to compare the wording in one book as a proof of the meaning in another book." Now we may not be able to achieve absolute "proof" of any definition, if we mean mathematical proof; I agree to that extent. But when a lexicographer wants to determine the "usus loquendi" or the meaning a writer attaches to a New Testament word, he proceeds as follows: First he looks at the target text, then the other uses of the word in the same document, then other documents by the same writer, then other New Testament documents, then the "LXX" or the Greek translation of the Old Testament, then the Patristics (early Greek Christian writings) then the Jewish Greek writers (like Philo and Josephus), then the Hellenistic Greek papyri, then Classical Greek writers. My point is that the use of a word in Acts is excellent evidence of its usage in John. Sorry, drj, but your point is simply not correct. The kind of proof that we can accept is the same as we would use in a court of law, the preponderance of the evidence. If you had said that we can't rely on Classical usage to prove NT usage, I might concede you a half point. But the idea that the NT Koine Greek word "hands" included "wrists" is one that we can take to the bank. Blessings.........
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Date:     2007-07-15 Username:   jimfoxy Helpful:   1 of 2
It is not generally true that the language of John is "peculiar" to that book, since if it were, no one could have understood him. It is true that John, like all the NT writers, sometimes uses certain terms with a nuance unique to him. We always have to be on the lookout for that possibility. Can we blindly assume that Luke and John always mean the exact same thing when they use a word? NO. Is the usage in John excellent evidence for a useage in Acts? YES! Sorry to insist on this untidy complexity, but a half-truth, such as propounded by CelsustheSecond in his 3 July comment, is nevertheless an error.
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Date:     2008-01-26 Username:   SplPio Helpful:   0 of 3
Why did the resurrected Jesus invite Thomas to touch him yet stop Mary Magdalene from doing so earlier? The exchange between Jesus and Thomas was different. When Jesus appeared to some disciples, Thomas was absent. Later, Thomas voiced his doubts about Jesus’ resurrection, saying that he would not believe it unless he saw Jesus’ nail wounds and put his hand into Jesus’ speared side. Eight days later, Jesus again appeared to the disciples. This time, Thomas was present, and Jesus invited him to touch the wounds.—John 20:24-27. Thus, in Mary Magdalene’s case, Jesus was dealing with a misplaced desire to prevent him from leaving; in Thomas’ case, Jesus was helping someone who had doubts. In both instances, Jesus had good reasons to act the way he did. Then she turned back and saw Jesus standing. Thinking him to be the gardener, she asked where the body was, that she might care for it. When he replied “Mary!” his identity was immediately revealed to her and she impulsively embraced him, exclaiming, “Rab·bo′ni!” But there was no time now for expressions of earthly affection. Jesus would be with them only a short time. Mary must hasten to inform the other disciples of his resurrection and that Jesus was ascending, as he said, “to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.”—Joh 20:11-18.
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Date:     2008-01-26 Username:   SplPio Helpful:   2 of 2
You left scrutinizing Psalms 22:16, it foretold he would be nailed.
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Date:     2008-04-19 Username:   anorak Helpful:   0 of 1
Jesus was put up on the cross because previous saviour deities were crucified (either on a cross or a tree). The real issue is that Jesus wasn't cricified for blasphemy. In Jewish law at the time, the punishment for blasphemy was STONING. Crucifixion was a ROMAN punishment for breaking the law....or being a pain in the Ceaser's ass.
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Date:     2008-04-24 Username:   Pantera Helpful:   1 of 1
jimfoxy - You wrote, "there is plenty of good evidence for nailing of crucifixion victims. Probably more manuscript evidence for nailing that [sic] for tying the limbs to the cross with ropes." But you didn't reference any of your evidence or cite any sources. Could you provide citations?
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Date:     2008-04-24 Username:   Pantera Helpful:   1 of 1
Crucifixion in Ancient Israel was rare. Except for a few instances, as when sedition against Rome was involved, Jewish victims were first stoned then hung on a tree in accordance with the Tanach passage in Devarim (Deuteronomy) 21:22-23: “When someone is convicted of a crime punishable by death and executed and you hang him on a tree, his corpse must not remain all night upon the tree; you shall bury him that same day, for anyone hung on a tree is under God’s curse.” In 87 BCE, 800 Jews were crucified in Jerusalem while their wives and children watched, rather than being hanged on a tree. According to Josephus (Ant. 12:256) the women and children were then slaughtered before the eyes of the crucified. Perhaps one of the unique aspects of crucifixion was that when employed on Jewish women, according to the Mishnah, they faced the cross. Men were crucified with their back to the cross. (Mishnah Sanhedrin, 6.4). The Romans usually crucified Jews nude to increase their public humiliation. Giving the crucifixion victim a proper burial was rare. In most cases, it was forbidden to Jews during the Roman occupation. The victim was in most cases simply thrown on the garbage dump of the city or left on the cross. Martin Hengel, however who wrote what is perhaps the definitive scholarly report of the subject of Crucifixion in antiquity ("Crucifixion in the Ancient World and the Folly of the Message of the Cross;" 1977 ), takes along with Hewitt (1932) an opposing view and argues that nailing the victim by both hands and feet was the rule and tying the victim to the cross was the exception. (see: Joe Zias' "Crucifixion in Antiquity: The Anthropological Evidence" )
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Date:     2008-05-20 Username:   Pantera Helpful:   0 of 1
SplPio ____ you wrote, "Why did the resurrected Jesus invite Thomas to touch him yet stop Mary Magdalene from doing so..." Two good reasons might be first, as Jesus' brother, Yehuda ha"Toma" ("Thomas") would profit by saying whatever would enhance his brother Jesus' god-man status. Second, as a woman, Miryam may have been niddah and could not touch a man, but especially not a corpse, which would also make her toevah.
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Date:     2009-06-28 Username:   mariegrl19 Helpful:   0 of 0
couldn't it be possible that he was both hung and nailed. since the hands might not be able support the body. he could have been nailed through his hands but maybe also tied to help keep the hands from being ripped.
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Date:     2009-07-23 Username:   DavidGibbs Helpful:   2 of 2
Whether Jesus was nailed or tied to the cross is of little consequence. Many people gave up entirely on the whole story when they read in Matthew how the tombs opened up and the Saints of old came out and mingled with the people in the city at the time of Jesus's resurrection. Matthew must have had exclusive rights to this phenomenal story, as no one else knew about this happening which escaped the notice of all the other Gospel writers and all the historians of the time. The incident seems to be so spectacular that it even eclipses Jesus's resurrection. What Saints was Matthew talking about? There were no Saints until they were invented by the Roman Church 300 years later.
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